Because Jesus once died descended into hell before rising from the dead on the third day?
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Christ descended into hell, that is to the “sheol”, where the righteous dead awaited him before His Coming and His Redeemer Sacrifice. He did not descend into hell: nor the damned before His Coming, nor those after His Coming, they could and will be saved.
He could explain how pertinent this clarification of his has to what Father Gabriel wrote, who is a philosopher and a dogmatic theologian?
I ask him to understand, just because I don't understand. And when I don't understand, I usually ask for explanations.
My clarification does not refer to what Father Gabriel wrote, on which I have no remarks. I just wanted to emphasize one truth – the distinction between the term “underworld” and the term “inferno” – that, sometimes, is not understood. My clarification was not addressed to the author of the article.
Thank you for the clarification, because we couldn't really understand
One moment: If I'm not mistaken, Ef 4,10 it refers to the Son of God who descended to earth, not to the descent into hell, of which the (so-called? Now everything is called into question) Creed of the Apostles.
Happy Easter!
Then it is necessary to immediately inform the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith and the International Theological Commission, because they made a mistake in writing the Catechism of the Catholic Church which reads as follows:
http://www.vatican.va/archive/OLD_catechism_it/p122a5p1_it.htm